flyboy1294
Pro basket weaver
Hey guys, here is my situation:
I have a Boston Acoustics GTA-1105 amp (http://www.crutchfield.com/p_065GTA1105/Boston-Acoustics-GTA-1105.html?tp=35808). It is suppose to be able to put out 400RMS at 2ohms on 1 channel. My old setup was a Kicker CVR10 with 4 ohm dual voice coils wired in parallel to 2 ohms. I was very happy with the system over all, but decided to upgrade for more bass.
Now I have the same amp, 2 Kicker CVR 10's with 2 ohm coils and a dual down firing box. I wired both voice coils in series, so each sub had an impedance of 4 ohms, and then wired the subs in parallel so the final impedance 'should be' 2 ohms. Well I fired everything up and I was extremely disappointed. It actually seemed quieter than my old setup. I double checked with an ohm meter, and I was getting a final load of 2.3 ohms for both speakers.
Well tonight I got frustrated and took everything out and tested it with an ohm meter again. Each sub was at 4ohms. When wired in parallel, they were around 2 ohms again. Then, just out of curiosity I unhooked one of the subs and wired the amp directly to a sub at 4ohms. I was AMAZED. The bass was incredibly loud and had no distortion or anything. I also noticed that the sub that was not hooked up was also moving because of the powered sub sharing a box, I assume.
So here is my question, why is 1 sub at 4 ohms louder than 2 subs at 2 ohms? That 1 sub should only be getting 200 watts RMS, but the two should have been getting 400 RMS. It just doesn't add up. There is a possibility that some of my connections were not perfect ( I did use those crappy terminals that have the spring loaded clip on the outside of the box, unfortunately) but the ohms ratings would not lie, would they?
Please feel free to offer any insight.
I have a Boston Acoustics GTA-1105 amp (http://www.crutchfield.com/p_065GTA1105/Boston-Acoustics-GTA-1105.html?tp=35808). It is suppose to be able to put out 400RMS at 2ohms on 1 channel. My old setup was a Kicker CVR10 with 4 ohm dual voice coils wired in parallel to 2 ohms. I was very happy with the system over all, but decided to upgrade for more bass.
Now I have the same amp, 2 Kicker CVR 10's with 2 ohm coils and a dual down firing box. I wired both voice coils in series, so each sub had an impedance of 4 ohms, and then wired the subs in parallel so the final impedance 'should be' 2 ohms. Well I fired everything up and I was extremely disappointed. It actually seemed quieter than my old setup. I double checked with an ohm meter, and I was getting a final load of 2.3 ohms for both speakers.
Well tonight I got frustrated and took everything out and tested it with an ohm meter again. Each sub was at 4ohms. When wired in parallel, they were around 2 ohms again. Then, just out of curiosity I unhooked one of the subs and wired the amp directly to a sub at 4ohms. I was AMAZED. The bass was incredibly loud and had no distortion or anything. I also noticed that the sub that was not hooked up was also moving because of the powered sub sharing a box, I assume.
So here is my question, why is 1 sub at 4 ohms louder than 2 subs at 2 ohms? That 1 sub should only be getting 200 watts RMS, but the two should have been getting 400 RMS. It just doesn't add up. There is a possibility that some of my connections were not perfect ( I did use those crappy terminals that have the spring loaded clip on the outside of the box, unfortunately) but the ohms ratings would not lie, would they?
Please feel free to offer any insight.